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I wonder how the enslaved population gets counted for calculating income equality. If you’re legally someone else’s property, isn’t your economic inequality to
by biztos 6y ago
I wonder how the enslaved population gets counted for calculating income equality.
If you’re legally someone else’s property, isn’t your economic inequality to that person immeasurably high? Not a number?
- erichocean 6y agoSlaves don't have income. It'd be like asking if monks in a monastery are experiencing "income inequality"—and how much? The question itself is nonsense.
- chordalkeyboard 6y agoSurely we can agree that zero is not equal to any number greater than zero? On that basis we can easily factor slavery into our inequality calculations.