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Yeah well the 1800s were also a time where people barely traveled 50kms outwards in their whole life and slaves existed so why on earth would we take that as a
by stefan_ 6y ago
Yeah well the 1800s were also a time where people barely traveled 50kms outwards in their whole life and slaves existed so why on earth would we take that as a barometer for anything.
- brink 6y agoBecause history matters and we shouldn't throw the baby out with the bathwater.
- biztos 6y agoI wonder how the enslaved population gets counted for calculating income equality. If you’re legally someone else’s property, isn’t your economic inequality to that person immeasurably high? Not a number?
- erichocean 6y agoSlaves don't have income. It'd be like asking if monks in a monastery are experiencing "income inequality"—and how much? The question itself is nonsense.
- chordalkeyboard 6y agoSurely we can agree that zero is not equal to any number greater than zero? On that basis we can easily factor slavery into our inequality calculations.