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There doesn't have to be the same number of buyers and sellers, does there? One million people could buy/sell, while one person or entity took the other side o
by perl4ever 6y ago
There doesn't have to be the same number of buyers and sellers, does there?
One million people could buy/sell, while one person or entity took the other side of all the trades. So your statement in the strictest sense could be false.
- maxerickson 6y agoIn English as it as spoke, the plurality of the word 'buyers' in my statement is grammatical rather than factual.
- perl4ever 6y agoIn the same way, the original comment maybe didn't mean literally nobody was buying, but significantly fewer than were selling. This seems vaguely plausible if you believe the narrative about short sellers; a single or small number of people could have been covering their short at the top. In theory. I'm not saying I firmly believe it.