6 ms·
That's such a silly way of measuring the answer. Books existed in the Middle Ages (e.g. Dark Ages, yes people will say we don't call it that anymore but still).
by notsureaboutpg 6y ago
That's such a silly way of measuring the answer. Books existed in the Middle Ages (e.g. Dark Ages, yes people will say we don't call it that anymore but still). Tech could have regressed our society in manifold ways and destroyed and rotted away many many institutions and there would still be books.
They should have a measure by which to mark this bet's conclusion. Arguments can be made for both sides.
- boomboomsubban 6y ago>Tech could have regressed our society in manifold ways and destroyed and rotted away many many institutions and there would still be books. There would not be a new book printed about this topic if society had regressed as you described.
- p1necone 6y agoI'm pretty sure you could destroy a lot of the fabric of modern society and still have a publishing house and a printing company able to produce a few thousand copies of a book.
- Nasrudith 6y agoThousands of copies of a book is something quaint in our great grandfather's days. The distribution mechanisms are what make it eyeroll worthy. Really whenever you hear anyone talk about "the fabric of society" they are full of shit. Just like how theater, jazz, rock music, heavy metal, rap, interracial marriage, women voting, and gay marriage destroyed the fabric of society. Those ample precedents of being complete bullshit aside it is a stack of abstractions with no measures. It sounds like it means something but it doesn't - it is just mouth noises to manipulate your emotions.
- NotPavlovsDog 6y ago> They should have a measure by which to mark this bet's conclusion. Arguments can be made for both sides. They're not in the science game. They're in the selling content game. In that, all three (let's not forget the person writing the article) appear to have succeeded, gaining exposure (and payment for the article writer) thanks to the bet, regardless of rigor. One could perhaps forsee more books and articles forthcoming as a result of this bet?
- 8ytecoder 6y agoOrthagonal and nitpick. I couldn't parse the "e.g., Dark Ages" part until I realised what you may have meant is "i.e., Dark Ages". I read "e.g.," as "for example" and "i.e.," as "that is". (English is not my first language)
- bonoboTP 6y agoThe "Dark Ages" usually refers to a subset of the Middle Ages, the earlier part, so "for example" worked for me and I only stopped and realized that ie was meant after reading your comment. This is one of those stupid things about English that make life for pupils harder for no reason. In most languages the abbreviation is straightforward and based on the actual language. (Also spelling bees don't exist in most other places). Entire classes of error possibilities are just made up for no good reason in English. (also, it's orthogonal, not orthagonal)
- 8ytecoder 6y agoAh. It makes sense now.
- Talanes 6y agoAs a native english speaker, "for example" and "that is" code as basically the same style of skip-over phrase: just there to lead into the important part. I'm curious what distinction you are reading into it. I'm sure that as a native learner I was more apt to just take mental shortcuts rather than resolve these ambiguities.
- 8ytecoder 6y agohttps://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/ie-vs-eg-abbreviation-meaning-usage-difference https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/ie-vs-eg-abbre... I assumed "for example" follows a collection/set as opposed to "that is" which is a 1-1 mapping. Sibling comment clarified it for me on why "for example" makes sense in this context.
- dragonwriter 6y ago