People claiming that Apple can do "whatever it wants" are definitely wrong, but in all of the discussion on this article I don't see anything like the following

People claiming that Apple can do "whatever it wants" are definitely wrong, but in all of the discussion on this article I don't see anything like the following: which current antitrust law is Apple violating with this behavior? There are a very small number of such laws (Sherman Act, Clayton Act, Celler-Kefauver, Hart-Scott-Rodino, Robinson-Patman, plus three or four others). Someone who wants to make a case that this is a "clear" antitrust violation (definitely the attitude of some in this thread!) should point to which law has been violated. Even better: point to similar case law from earlier decisions. Just arguing that this behavior is "bad" is not going to be that persuasive to a court You can think Apple is right or wrong on this issue, but to say that the antitrust case against Apple is clear is quite different. Why is it a clear case?