4 ms·
The problem with your reasoning is that you assume that what psychiatrists group together based on behavior and culture must share single identifiable neurologi
by Blikkentrekker 6y ago
The problem with your reasoning is that you assume that what psychiatrists group together based on behavior and culture must share single identifiable neurological causes.
It's entirely possible that there is nothing neurologically objectively different about an autistic person from a non-autistic person, and that it's simply a cultural quirk that led to it; this has been the case with many historical diagnoses.
In fact, I would argue that this is not simply possible, but likely, given that usually, if such a neurological discriminant exist, it is typically quickly found. That they have searched for so long without being able to find it, is indicative of a nonexistence.
- SubiculumCode 6y agoNo where did I assume a 1-1 correspondence between psychiatric label and neurological cause. Many disorders likely show variation precisely because they have different underlying causes....much like a car might not start for a number of reasons, including faulty wiring, bad battery, bad starter, no fuel, etc. It is also this heterogeneity of underlying causes that make precise neurological diagnosis difficult. Nevertheless, the biggest claim is trying to claim that some behavior/symptomology/quirk does not involve the brain.