3 ms·
Right, but it must have been happening anyway, because there’s more shorts than shares available to buy. (I think?)
by dash2 6y ago
Right, but it must have been happening anyway, because there’s more shorts than shares available to buy. (I think?)
- necubi 6y agoWrong, see Matt Levine's explanation of this from today: https://www.bloomberg.com/opinion/articles/2021-01-25/the-game-never-stops#footnote-3 https://www.bloomberg.com/opinion/articles/2021-01-25/the-ga... > This does not necessarily mean a lot of people are doing evil illegal nefarious naked shorting! Really, I promise! There is no special limit on shorting at 100% of shares outstanding! Here is an explanation of how options market makers (discussed below) are allowed to short without a locate, but I want to offer an even simpler explanation. There are 100 shares. A owns 90 of them, B owns 10. A lends her 90 shares to C, who shorts them all to D. Now A owns 90 shares, B owns 10 and D owns 90—there are 100 shares outstanding, but190 shares show up on ownership lists. (The accounts balance because C owes 90 shares to A, giving C, in a sense, negative 90 shares.) Short interest is 90 shares out of 100 outstanding. Now D lends her 90 shares to E, who shorts them all to F. Now A owns 90, B 10, D 90 and F 90, for a total of 280 shares. Short interest is 180 shares out of 100 outstanding. No problem! No big deal! You can just keep re-borrowing the shares. F can lend them to G! It's fine.