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Because there are residual differences in testosterone for the intergenerational comparisons after controlling for physical activity.
by bordercases 6y ago
Because there are residual differences in testosterone for the intergenerational comparisons after controlling for physical activity.
- huitzitziltzin 6y ago> after controlling for physical activity You say that like it's easy to do. It's not. That's not directly measurable, certainly not across generations. It's only barely become measurable in the past five or six years. How would you go about getting this information in the 1970's? Self-reported data would be the best you can do. Getting actual measurements of that information is something which (I suspect) is not available at a large scale beyond a few years of data. Whether it is (even now) linked to measurements of testosterone at a large scale is doubtful. I doubt that there is high-quality data on actual physical activity at a large scale at all, let alone linked to measurements of hormone levels from any of the 1990's, 1980's, 1970's, ... etc. It will only get much much harder going back. So "controlling for" physical activity is a non-trivial task in the very best case.