Honest question: is it possible that some of the repercussions of Section 230 are not just reliant on a strict reading of the law in question, but also the case

Honest question: is it possible that some of the repercussions of Section 230 are not just reliant on a strict reading of the law in question, but also the case law and precedents built around it in the form of court decisions? Precedents in the US are sometimes more important than a literal reading of the law.