4 ms·

I understand what you are saying, but I think a likelier explanation is that a small percentage of the population of modern day Pakistan were already Urdu speak

I understand what you are saying, but I think a likelier explanation is that a small percentage of the population of modern day Pakistan were already Urdu speakers before partition. I am open to changing my mind or confirming my theory, given empirical evidence.

selimthegrim 6y ago
To give you an example, listen to Waseem Akhtar criticizing Ch. Nisar. https://youtu.be/qeXlgNZTcmA https://youtu.be/qeXlgNZTcmA You can tell by his grammar that his family belongs to UP.