This is some really strange stuff. Since shareholders own the company, wouldn't this mean that the shareholders who didn't sue are effectively paying the shareh

This is some really strange stuff. Since shareholders own the company, wouldn't this mean that the shareholders who didn't sue are effectively paying the shareholders who did? That makes sense if the shareholders who sued were somehow specifically affected, but if the effect is a drop in stock price, all shareholders were affected equally, so it doesn't make sense for some shareholders to compensate others.