4 ms·
"Maybe it's that the first is an involuntary participation without someone's agreement, while the 2nd is someone agreeing to work under given conditions?" It's
by kome 6y ago
"Maybe it's that the first is an involuntary participation without someone's agreement, while the 2nd is someone agreeing to work under given conditions?"
It's an old debate, the "lochner era" debate (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lochner_era https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lochner_era).
"Agreeing on conditions" is not enough to make something fair. You may agree because you are desperate and you need cash, you may go straight to voluntary serfdom...
Society and policy makers are fully entitled to disrupt "private contracts" when those contracts are not in line with the greater good.
- whiddershins 6y agoThat’s an argument, but many think this doesn’t work in practice.
- everfree 6y agoAntitrust cases are a good example of this type of thinking working well in practice.
- zeroonetwothree 6y ago“The greater good” is clearly not the actual legal requirement...