Overpricing one class of assets is functionally equivalent to underpricing the other classes. Facing inflation, money will aggregate first in the assets most li

Overpricing one class of assets is functionally equivalent to underpricing the other classes. Facing inflation, money will aggregate first in the assets most likely to maintain + outpace an increase in monetary supply. Once they start appearing too overpriced, the overflow will affect other industries. I'd invoke Occam's Razor to state that inflation due to increase in monetary supply is more likely to manifest as "overpricing" of one or two asset classes first. As opposed to a crash, where one asset class bottoms out and takes the other with it, stimulus and inflation, in theory, would cause the opposite -- would they not? I haven't studied hyperinflation. So consider me inquisitive on the subject. But it's certainly happened before, and the dynamics seem like they have the potential to create a positive feedback loop similar to a crash.