5 ms·

Because the fine is punitive, not cost-based.

• googlryas 6y ago
  That's not clear from the context.
  • rahimnathwani 6y ago
    It's clear from the dictionary definition of 'fine': "a sum imposed as punishment for an offense"
    • googlryas 6y ago
      A definition which fits with a fixed amount fine as well.
      • rahimnathwani 6y ago
        You said it wasn't clear from the context that a fine is punitive. I pointed out that context isn't necessary to determine that, as it's clear from the definition of fine. Do you now agree that fines are punitive? If so, do you agree that fines need to be set high enough to provide a disincentive, even if that is higher than the average negative externality created by an infraction?
        • googlryas 6y ago
          astrea said "Because the fine is punitive, not cost-based.", and I said it is not clear that the fine is not cost based due to lack of context. I don't think any reasonable reading of my comments would lead anyone to believe that I ever thought fines were not punitive, and I feel like you're arguing in bad faith, so cheers.
          • rahimnathwani 6y ago
            I thought you were saying it wasn't clear that the fine is punitive. I quoted the comments I read that led me to believe that. If you think I was arguing in bad faith and/or that my reading wasn't reasonable, then that's of course your prerogative, even though I don't agree.