> It is also possible this was a prevailing thought, or that the environment was encouraging of such thoughts, in that nation at that time; that something cause

> It is also possible this was a prevailing thought, or that the environment was encouraging of such thoughts, in that nation at that time; that something caused division, and that the nazi used this as a way to assert power and spearhead their ideology. Doesn't this exactly confirm the original claim that words do lead to actions and therefore affect people's rights?