> There's a near-universal expectation of sex, so this could easily fall afoul of FOSTA-SESTA regulations. I've always been curious where exactly the line on p

> There's a near-universal expectation of sex, so this could easily fall afoul of FOSTA-SESTA regulations. I've always been curious where exactly the line on prostitution is drawn. Not in a judgemental way, just in a legal curiosity way. If sex is not explicitly part of the transaction, but heavily implied as a requirement, does that count? The woman could always say no, but then there might not be a second date. I have a suspicion that it probably does count as prostitution, but because it doesn't create a lot of the issues surrounding traditional prostitution, it gets ignored. No one is complaining about the crime in their neighborhood because of sugar daddies. The women involved seem generally attractive and well-dressed, so there are fewer cries of it being a form of abuse. The whole affair is fairly discrete, rather than being out in the open. The men involved are wealthy as well, which probably helps keep the whole thing under wraps.