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Simply not true. Poorer households give a larger proportion of their income. > It is clear from the graph that when put in the context of their individual budg
by glutamate 6y ago
Simply not true. Poorer households give a larger proportion of their income.
> It is clear from the graph that when put in the context of their individual budgets, donor households towards the lower end of the expenditure distribution tend to give away more of their money to charity than donor households in the higher expenditure percentiles. On this measure, poorer donor households are more generous than richer donor households, those in the bottom decile donating approximately 3% of their budget compared with those in the top decile donating roughly 1%.
http://www.cgap.org.uk/uploads/Briefing%20Papers/CGAP%20BN7%20How%20generous%20is%20the%20UK.pdf http://www.cgap.org.uk/uploads/Briefing%20Papers/CGAP%20BN7%...
- bitbang 6y agoYour argument is completely non-sequiter. My point has nothing to do with who gives what portion of their income. My point is that when defining who is rich, it's almost always somebody else. While taxing the rich more than the poor is a reasonable proposition, it usually will fail when defining who is actually rich, because most of whoever finds themselves defined as rich, will object and point to somebody making more than themselves as the "truly rich".
- Simulacra 6y agoIf a rich person gives $100 and a poor person gives $10, it's still just $10. It might be more of their income in proportion, but it's still only $10. It doesn't magically become $100 just because it was more of the poor person's income.