Assuming that simple model was correct, wouldn't that then mean that in order for the consumer to be able to afford such goods and services the would, in turn,

Assuming that simple model was correct, wouldn't that then mean that in order for the consumer to be able to afford such goods and services the would, in turn, have to be paid more? It's not like the American consumer is a tremendous store of surplus value, especially given that they have effectively no saving on average and rising debt. If the wealthy conspire to charge more because of income lost to taxes, then the labor class will simply have to consume less or somehow make more. As far as the former goes, historically capitalism doesn't do great when it decreases the material conditions of workers (which is what forcing decreased consumption leads to).