Let me put it differently, market share does not equal profit share does not equal revenue share does not equal total number of people employed by does not equa

Let me put it differently, market share does not equal profit share does not equal revenue share does not equal total number of people employed by does not equal share of ownership in a particular store or platform. So what is the measure? Apple owns 100% of the App Store, but they do not recognize 100% of the revenue from the App Store on their financials. An arbitrary number of people like 45M EU citizens choosing to use your service or buy your products or shop in your stores? I don’t see the merits for this distinction. Don’t get me started on antitrust laws.