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99% of European didn't have anything to do with this trade and slavery was progressively forbidden on the territory of nearly all European countries during midd

by Rexxar 6y ago

99% of European didn't have anything to do with this trade and slavery was progressively forbidden on the territory of nearly all European countries during middle age (since 1315 for France for example but also in other countries https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_medieval_Europe https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_medieval_Europe). All big European revolutions after 1789 had claims to stop slavery in overseas territory. So lots of European people have actually fought a to put an end to this long before Americans. Europeans were also victims from slavery from North Africa and Ottoman Empire at the same time (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barbary_slave_trade https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barbary_slave_trade and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_the_Ottoman_Empire https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_the_Ottoman_Empire). Kings of the time obviously use this trade as an instrument of power but it was not something that had a meaningful impact on life of ordinary peoples. You are just inventing an alternate history to find someone to dislike.

dx87 6y ago
It's pretty meaningless to say that slavery was outlawed in most European countries for hundreds of years, even though some had colonies around the world until well into the 1900s. European countries just outsourced the slavery and called it empire building.
- Rexxar 6y ago
  There is a lot of difference. Morally, why European people should be responsible of regime that oppressed them and against they rebel multiple times ? Economically, European peasants that were the great majority of population didn't get any advantage of all of this, and some of them in southern/eastern Europe were victims of similar behaviour from other countries. Why someone from south of Italy whose ancestor were enslaved by Ottomans should pay for crimes of kings of Britain, Spain and Portugal ?

by Rexxar 6y ago

dx87 6y ago

It's pretty meaningless to say that slavery was outlawed in most European countries for hundreds of years, even though some had colonies around the world until well into the 1900s. European countries just outsourced the slavery and called it empire building.

Rexxar 6y ago
There is a lot of difference. Morally, why European people should be responsible of regime that oppressed them and against they rebel multiple times ? Economically, European peasants that were the great majority of population didn't get any advantage of all of this, and some of them in southern/eastern Europe were victims of similar behaviour from other countries. Why someone from south of Italy whose ancestor were enslaved by Ottomans should pay for crimes of kings of Britain, Spain and Portugal ?