35 ms·
Yes, in the sense of whether someone is a “legitimate child” of the deceased in a normal will (still absolutely repugnant that “illegitimate children” could be
by tehwebguy 6y ago
Yes, in the sense of whether someone is a “legitimate child” of the deceased in a normal will (still absolutely repugnant that “illegitimate children” could be excluded by default, but not this judge’s fault).
However, it seems clear the judge used that definition to change the rules of the contest, which makes no sense.
- fred_is_fred 6y agoThe point is that legally (in the eyes of the judge) these were not children of the parties - regardless of the biological situation. I assume that this was standard legal process then and was applied to inheritance and other legal matters. The judge was simply applying existing law and custom by interpreting the words of the contest. This is why you have lawyers write these, although based on what's else this guy did, causing some confusion was likely the point.