4 ms·

I was more so referring to the right to vote, run for office, etc. You are certainly not wrong about the other parts though.

• konjin 6y ago
  Rich blacks could vote in more states after independence than poor whites. And that remained the case for 50 years. Leading to the hilarious case where the first recognized black slave in the US was owned by a black man. Regardless, offices again had property and tax qualifications in virtually all states.
  • jakelazaroff 6y ago
    A de jure right to vote often did not translate to actual access to the franchise. States often enacted barriers such as poll taxes and literacy tests, exempting anyone whose grandfather was registered to vote (i.e. not Black people, whose grandparents had been enslaved). Such discriminatory practices were not actually outlawed until the Voting Rights Act was passed a full century later.
    • konjin 6y ago
      That's nice, but if someone has a right they can't exercise they are still more privileged than someone who doesn't have that right. Not to mention that the target of those laws were, now considered white, immigrants rather than the always minority blacks in the north.