5 ms·
Given a conventional chain can be up to 98% efficient then the maximum increase in efficiency is 1/.98 - 1 = 2.04%
by carlob 6y ago
Given a conventional chain can be up to 98% efficient then the maximum increase in efficiency is 1/.98 - 1 = 2.04%
- buzzerbetrayed 6y agoIs 100% efficiency physically possible? Or are they just trying to get as close as they can, knowing they can never truly reach 100%?
- wishinghand 6y agoAs long as there is friction, no.
- robotresearcher 6y agoNever 100%. Friction anywhere will prevent perfect efficiency. Also any compression, flexing or twisting of the components, which can be very, very small for hard steel at these low forces but not quite zero.
- yoz-y 6y agoWouldn’t a vélocipède be 100% efficient (in transferring motion of legs into motion of the wheel)?
- colechristensen 6y agoA percentage of a percentage is an odd way to express a change, and at that picking the non-loss side as basis. One could say increasing efficiency by 1% equivalent to reducing existing losses by 50%, both of those are reasonable bases, making it a percentage of the existing efficiency feels off.
- carlob 6y agoI disagree: my basis makes it easier to answer the question of how much faster can you go by exerting the same power. The point being that when you are already close to maximal efficiency the gains are very marginal.