no it doesn’t, unless your subjective opinion says these two are in fact indistinguishable in which case you would have to explain the reason for the semantic c

no it doesn’t, unless your subjective opinion says these two are in fact indistinguishable in which case you would have to explain the reason for the semantic collision of “placing a wager” and “cracking a joke” and how these two completely different constructions came to be used to describe literally exactly the same set of phenomena.