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There's also the causality direction in question. Are they parents richer in part because they are less likely to have psychological disorders? Hence the offspr
by juancn 6y ago
There's also the causality direction in question. Are they parents richer in part because they are less likely to have psychological disorders? Hence the offspring is also more likely to have fewer psychological disorders?
In that scenario money is a correlated variable, and the root cause is somewhere else.
- beauzo 6y agoThey adjusted “for the potential confounding effects of parental history of mental disorders...”
- VLM 6y agoTo quote: "Adjustment for parental mental illness also likely represented an under-adjustment as most parental psychiatric disorders that were treated in outpatient clinics (without inpatient admission) were not recorded, and all of those that were treated in primary care (without inpatient or outpatient treatment) were unregistered. Furthermore, although register-based mental disorder diagnoses have been shown to have good validity [33, 34], not all mental disorders have been validated." So if they exclude parental outpatient treated disorders, and exclude parental primary care treated disorders, all that seems to be left over is the rounding errors of self diagnosis and stays in mental hospitals, which would seem to be a huge issue for the conclusion. The conclusion section doesn't seem to relate to the results section and discussion section, so that's weird.
- beauzo 6y agoI agree. I would expect genetics to be a fairly significant confounding variable.