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You would have to elaborate on why Benford's law being applicable to one election makes it applicable in another. If the distribution of Iranian electors doesn'
by happytoexplain 6y ago
You would have to elaborate on why Benford's law being applicable to one election makes it applicable in another. If the distribution of Iranian electors doesn't exhibit the stated limitation, then it makes sense why Benford's law would apply in that case but not in the 2020 US case.
- chrisco255 6y agoNo, you would have to make your case as to why it wouldn't be applicable. I've heard no such fundamental argument other than handwaving. It's perfectly acceptable to use for election data, just as it's used in population data. And if you really want to prove your case, you should demand an audit be done so we could settle this argument once and for all.
- tialaramex 6y agoYou actually were given a very specific fundamental argument way up thread, which you've ignored: Benford's law doesn't apply if values aren't expected to have size-relative even distribution across multiple orders of magnitude.