> It says that inequality is the highest it has been in 50 years, yet the graph it uses to show this doesn't support that claim. It shows that the top 1% of fam

> It says that inequality is the highest it has been in 50 years, yet the graph it uses to show this doesn't support that claim. It shows that the top 1% of families held more wealth in prior years until approximately the 1940s. The 1940s are approx. 80 years ago. "In 50 years" refers to the period starting from ~1970 onwards.