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Their case is accurate to the graph, the graph is showing the distribution of wealth of the top 1% vs the general population, and in the last fifty years the to
by drannex 6y ago
Their case is accurate to the graph, the graph is showing the distribution of wealth of the top 1% vs the general population, and in the last fifty years the top 1% does in fact have a wider share (the graph actually shows we are at our worst in nearly 70 years - since 1940, early WW2).
The graph is inverted than initially assumed, the smallest share is at the top (15%), the largest share is at the bottom (55%). So in 1960 the share was ~28% and now it is ~40%.
- giantg2 6y agoI'm an idiot. I did not notice that it was inverted. Which brings me to another question - why set the axis as inverted?
- drannex 6y agoI had a double take when I saw your comment and looked back at the graph as well. I've asked the author to describe the reasons behind it, if there are any.