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I don't know why it would follow from relativity, but the block universe just makes sense. To me, it follows from determinism and Occam's razor.
by falseprofit 6y ago
I don't know why it would follow from relativity, but the block universe just makes sense. To me, it follows from determinism and Occam's razor.
- ben_w 6y agoBecause relativity does away with the alternative, that of a universally accessible “now”.
- pdonis 6y ago> relativity does away with the alternative, that of a universally accessible “now” Relativity does away with "now" period--"now" is a frame-dependent concept in relativity, and frame-dependent concepts, in relativity, have no physical meaning. As I noted in the article I linked to upthread, the physically meaningful division of spacetime, at some particular event "here and now" (like you sitting in your chair reading this), is into three parts, not two: the past light cone, the future light cone, and the spacelike separated region (what Roger Penrose, in the very same book where he presents the Andromeda scenario, calls "elsewhere"). The past light cone behaves like our intuitive concept of "past", and the future light cone behaves like our intuitive concept of "future", but the spacelike separated region does not behave like anything our intuition is familiar with. The whole "Andromeda paradox" argument is based on failing to recognize that the spacelike separated region exists in relativity and doesn't match up with our intuitions about either "past" or "future".
- pdonis 6y ago> To me, it follows from determinism I think it follows from just determinism; you don't even need Occam's Razor. The reason it isn't logically required by relativity is that relativity does not logically require determinism.