As they are population based studies, they are of no use clinically at all Why not? Are you saying that population based studies are meaningless unless the stu

As they are population based studies, they are of no use clinically at all Why not? Are you saying that population based studies are meaningless unless the study includes the individual we are interested in? They do this by reporting the odds ratio found by a GWA study as their personal odds ratio of getting a disease And isn't that correct, given only the information about SNPs? How else would you define a "personal odds ratio"?