3 ms·
"families with children skew lower income" Is this because lower income -> more kids, or is it binary, and lower income -> higher probability of has_kids=true?
by cashewchoo 6y ago
"families with children skew lower income"
Is this because lower income -> more kids, or is it binary, and lower income -> higher probability of has_kids=true?
- 8fGTBjZxBcHq 6y agoIt's a sort of complex but fairly well understood demographic trend globally if you want to look into it. There's not really one clear cause. In general more educated people and professionals have kids later and have fewer of them. Having kids earlier is also a significant barrier to completing education and entering a high income profession so there's an effect there too. This isn't all of it just the two most clear examples.
- kube-system 6y agoI mostly mean that they are lower income in comparison to those who can WFH. But yes, income and fertility also tend to have a negative correlation;
- curiousllama 6y agoBoth, and income is often measured as a function of family size (e.g., poverty line for singles is lower than for families). In other words: lower income folks are more likely to have kids, more likely to have more kids, and each subsequent kid lowers relative income (according to most income metrics).
- bluGill 6y agoAlso because by the time women reach their peak earning years they are physically unable to have children (even women who choose not to have kids don't reach their peak until after they are done with kids). While men are able to have children they are typically done as well.
- stkdump 6y agoActually, in Germany the opposite is true. The median net household income ladder is: 1. Single household (lowest income) 2. Single parent with one kid 3. Two adults, no kids 4. Families with one kid 5. Families with two kids (highest income) Now obviously there is a correlation with age. And also income and disposable income are two different things. But I don't think the story is quite as simple as GP seems to make it.