Either way it's not "theft", as the original owner of the exclusive rights to copy (etc.) the work still has those rights. After all that's what the "property"

Either way it's not "theft", as the original owner of the exclusive rights to copy (etc.) the work still has those rights. After all that's what the "property" in "intellectual property" is - the bundle of exclusive rights. Owners of those rights aren't deprived of them by somebody copying the works over which the rights exist.