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This scenario is several steps too hypothetical for me. If you have 10^1000+1 coins, how did you accurately ascertain that exactly 1 coin was biased and the ot
by throwaway2245 6y ago
This scenario is several steps too hypothetical for me.
If you have 10^1000+1 coins, how did you accurately ascertain that exactly 1 coin was biased and the others were not?
And if you have been able to do that, well enough to state it as fact, why do you now need to do this statistical test?
- pontus 6y agoIt's just a thought experiment meant to highlight a common fallacy in how people think about p-values.
- deleted 6y ago[deleted]
- throwaway2245 6y agoI find it fallacious to see this as a criticism of p-values. If I wanted to identify whether a particular coin was the [most] biased out of 10^1000, flipping one coin 10 times isn't a reasonable setup for the experiment. And, my conclusion to your hypothetical experiment would be: the person who told me that there was a 99.9...% chance this coin was fair was likely incorrect about that.