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If I had written "Marak doesn't want to prevent big companies from using their code [...]", the gender-neutral "their" could have refered to the companies' code
by adwn 6y ago
If I had written "Marak doesn't want to prevent big companies from using their code [...]", the gender-neutral "their" could have refered to the companies' code, giving the sentence a different, incorrect meaning. I would have had to completely restructure the sentence just to avoid the sin of accidentally misgendering someone; instead, I placed a "(?)" after the pronoun, to be on the safe side.
- lollmao 6y agoYes I see now, it does seem to not sit well in many cases. Thanks for clarifying :)