4 ms·
Why would they? Given two random numbers with a size of n, the probability that upper halves (size of upper half is n/2) are the same is 1/(1+n/2).
by NullPrefix 6y ago
Why would they? Given two random numbers with a size of n, the probability that upper halves (size of upper half is n/2) are the same is 1/(1+n/2).
- deathanatos 6y agoThat's not how the parent is interpreting that statement; their interpretation of, > If p and q share approximately half of their upper bits That, of the upper bits, are approximately half are the same? Since the combinations of two corresponding bits in p & q are 00, 01, 10, and 11, and, if they're chosen uniformly, one would expect about half to be the same. I suspect that your interpretation is what the article wants to say, but I think that the parent's interpretation is reasonable given how it was written.