Thanks for the comment. One point to clarify on my post: > I find it interesting that you frame income inequality as "wealth polarisation." Are you implying a

Thanks for the comment. One point to clarify on my post: > I find it interesting that you frame income inequality as "wealth polarisation." Are you implying a bimodal distribution of some sort? I wasn't intending to equate distribution and polarisation. By the latter, I meant the steady shift of wealth to a smaller population who have become progressively wealthier. While, at the other end, the majority have beome comparatively less wealthy compared to equivalent social cohorts over time. Perhaps more succinctly, it's the _change_ in distribution, not the _presence_ of a distribution. I'm no economist and I know there are a variety of opinions on distribution, but I understand there's reasonable agreement that globalisation has increased polarisation [0]. [0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_inequality https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_inequality