> If you sell a company to an established player for $Phat_Stacks_Of_Cash, should you qualify as knowingly contributing to bad market behavior? maybe? it seems

> If you sell a company to an established player for $Phat_Stacks_Of_Cash, should you qualify as knowingly contributing to bad market behavior? maybe? it seems like this is a variant of the old question: is it (morally) worse to be the hitman or the person who hired the hitman? it takes two to tango, but I'd say creating the incentive is usually worse than following an existing incentive gradient.