Please qualify the scoping or share the basis for your assertion "The middle class _do_ have most of the money...", as this pie chart [1] shows US middle class

Please qualify the scoping or share the basis for your assertion "The middle class _do_ have most of the money...", as this pie chart [1] shows US middle class net worth is about 4%, not what I interpret as "most of the money". Either your scoping of your assertion is for a different nation (in which case it isn't pertain to this discussion thread of a US-centric news story), the scoping of the "most of the money" term is different than what I use, our scoping of "middle" is different, or there is something else I'm misunderstanding about your assertion. I don't consider the bottom 95% of households as "middle", and you'd have to get there to even approach rough parity with the remaining 5%, and by then that 95% is not much of a "middle" any longer, so I'm not clear what you consider "middle". [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wealth_inequality_in_the_United_States#Statistics https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wealth_inequality_in_the_Unite...