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No, fair use is not "presumed." Exclusive use by the creator is presumed, since the text of the Constitution literally says "exclusive rights." At the time the
by gamblor956 6y ago
No, fair use is not "presumed." Exclusive use by the creator is presumed, since the text of the Constitution literally says "exclusive rights."
At the time the Constitution was written, society profited when people sold their inventions or creative works. And the purpose of patent law was to reward people for inventing or creating by allowing them to recoup the costs of inventing and creating.
There was no fair use exception back then; courts were extremely harsh on copyright and patent law offenders. It wasn't until Congress codified "fair use" into the law in the 1970s. https://msu.edu/~mcgrat71/Writing/Fair_Use_Rife.pdf https://msu.edu/~mcgrat71/Writing/Fair_Use_Rife.pdf
- dredmorbius 6y agoDo you have a copy of Nimmer handy?
- dredmorbius 6y ago"Fair use is therefore distinct from affirmative defenses where a use infringes a copyright, but there is no liability due to a valid excuse, e.g., misuse of a copyright." -- Lenz v. Universal Music Corp. (2015), Ninth Circuit. https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=12567649168680108221 https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=125676491686801...