4 ms·
"Someone reporting not being ill can by definition not have residual syptoms" Ofcourse they can. This is trivially proven by the fact that alot of people lose
by Out_of_Characte 6y ago
"Someone reporting not being ill can by definition not have residual syptoms"
Ofcourse they can. This is trivially proven by the fact that alot of people lose their sense of smell after a covid infection. Even mostly asymptomatic people have reported this.
"It’s not uncommon for upper respiratory infections such as the common cold or flu to affect our senses of smell and taste. In fact, it’s estimated that a temporary loss of smell happens in over 60 percent of colds and sinus infections."
This is why self-reporting is a different ball-game, I (used) to not consider myself 'sick' and symptomatic if I had a minor flu or cold. One can most definitely report 'not being ill' from coronavirus and suffer residual symptoms.
https://www.healthline.com/health/coronavirus-loss-of-taste-loss-of-smell#an-early-symptom https://www.healthline.com/health/coronavirus-loss-of-taste-...
- kmm 6y agoIf you look at the study you'll find that of the 71235 people who reported not being ill, exactly 0 have residual symptoms. I'm assuming selecting the option would have been in impossible in the form. If you have (or think you have) a residual symptom of covid, by definition you must have had it, or think you had it. "Ill" here simply means having contracted the virus.