2 ms·
Nope. They don't "have" their own state until one of them is measured. But they do have a correlated state which exists before measurement, which says they have
by zkmon 6y ago
Nope. They don't "have" their own state until one of them is measured. But they do have a correlated state which exists before measurement, which says they have opposite/same states. The individual states arise only after measurement. I'm not a physicist, but wrote a Quantum Simulator.