4 ms·
Not if they are marriages in separate jurisdictions.
by iso8859-1 6y ago
Not if they are marriages in separate jurisdictions.
- dragonwriter 6y agoUnless the first marriage is viewed as invalid in the second jurisdiction (which simply occurring in another jurisdiction usually won't do), or the second jurisdiction allows polygamy (in which case, it doesn't need to be a separate jurisdiction, anyway), that generally is insufficient.