3 ms·
Aha, that makes perfect sense. It's not suggesting that the underlying property is only true of the Mercator projection, but that people are most likely to be c
by schoen 6y ago
Aha, that makes perfect sense. It's not suggesting that the underlying property is only true of the Mercator projection, but that people are most likely to be confused by that property when they think in terms of the Mercator projection.
> because the nautical mile is (or more accurately was) defined by a minute of latitude
Cool, I've heard that in the past but somehow always forget about it!
You have: (arcminute/circle) earthradius * two pi
You want: nauticalmile
* 1.0006759
/ 0.9993246
Thanks!