> Median is very misleading because of rise in income inequality. More than 50% of gains in median income last 20 years have gone to the top 25% how can this p

> Median is very misleading because of rise in income inequality. More than 50% of gains in median income last 20 years have gone to the top 25% how can this possibly make sense? by definition, the earnings of the top quartile cannot affect the median.