From the article: > “Trends in Income,” which hasn’t yet been peer reviewed, estimates what would have happened in the U.S. if the 1945-1975 tax regime had con

From the article: > “Trends in Income,” which hasn’t yet been peer reviewed, estimates what would have happened in the U.S. if the 1945-1975 tax regime had continued until 2018. This isn't what the paper says though. From the abstract: > [We] estimate that aggregate income for the population below the 90th percentile over this time period would have been $2.5 trillion (67 percent) higher in 2018 had income growth since 1975 remained as equitable as it was in the first two post-War decades. From 1975 to 2018, the difference between the aggregate taxable income for those below the 90th percentile and the equitable growth counterfactual totals $47 trillion. The paper doesn't say anything about the cause of income inequality or attribute it to tax policy or anything. Am I missing something? It seems like the article author grossly misinterpreted the paper. (Disclaimer: not agreeing with, or disagreeing with the article. Just pointing out that it's proposition is false.)