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"The ancient Greeks" are certainly not a homogeneous group. Here's Euclid's proof of the Pythagorean theorem: https://mathcs.clarku.edu/~djoyce/java/elements/bo
by tom_mellior 6y ago
"The ancient Greeks" are certainly not a homogeneous group. Here's Euclid's proof of the Pythagorean theorem: https://mathcs.clarku.edu/~djoyce/java/elements/bookI/propI47.html https://mathcs.clarku.edu/~djoyce/java/elements/bookI/propI4...
There are no concrete quantities in sight. I don't think that they were removed by the translator. Much more plausibly the original reasoning was symbolic in the way indicated here. Though again, possibly using different notation.
- mathgenius 6y agoSorry, I think I was referring specifically to the dude that did integer polynomial equations. His name starts with P i think.
- tom_mellior 6y agoAh, you might be thinking of https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diophantine_equation https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diophantine_equation. Sure enough, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diophantus https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diophantus says: "It should be mentioned here that Diophantus never used general methods in his solutions. Hermann Hankel, renowned German mathematician made the following remark regarding Diophantus. “Our author (Diophantos) not the slightest trace of a general, comprehensive method is discernible; each problem calls for some special method which refuses to work even for the most closely related problems. For this reason it is difficult for the modern scholar to solve the 101st problem even after having studied 100 of Diophantos’s solutions”." I didn't know this, thanks.