Calling civil asset forfeiture "extra-judicial" seems inaccurate - there is still a court involved, right? It's just civil rather than criminal, so there's a w

Calling civil asset forfeiture "extra-judicial" seems inaccurate - there is still a court involved, right? It's just civil rather than criminal, so there's a weaker standard of proof (preponderance of evidence, instead of beyond reasonable doubt). This comment shouldn't be construed as support for civil asset forfeiture, I'm just trying to clarify terminology.