3 ms·
> but it's due to the math indicating that it's an advantageous spot to do it, not because of anything he's observed about his opponent. I wonder about this di
by osazuwa 6y ago
> but it's due to the math indicating that it's an advantageous spot to do it, not because of anything he's observed about his opponent.
I wonder about this distinction. This seems it would make sense if all the players played the GTO strategy. Suppose one agent were to play the GTO strategy, but an other player was vulnerable to bluffing. It seems reasonable to "tune" the bluffs to that player.
In an extreme example, suppose every time a certain player would fold 100% of the time when another player played a certain way. It seems it would make sense for that other player to play that way when they wanted that player to fold, even under normal circumstances that play would be suboptimal.
- boring_twenties 6y agoThat is absolutely correct. If everyone plays 100% GTO, then no one makes any money except the house. In order to actually profit, you need to deviate from the GTO strategy in order to exploit your opponent's mistakes.
- im3w1l 6y agoPlaying GTO against a poor player will make you money. This isn't the case in every game (rock paper scissor is the canonical example), but it is true in poker.
- boring_twenties 6y agoPerhaps, but much less money than exploiting the poor player's many mistakes.