> the party controlling the senate can exercise its heckler’s veto I'm trying to think of a plausible vehicle for arguing that if the Senate refuses to vote on

> the party controlling the senate can exercise its heckler’s veto I'm trying to think of a plausible vehicle for arguing that if the Senate refuses to vote on a nomination within a reasonable time, then that refusal (i) constitutes a waiver of the right to withhold consent and therefore (ii) is deemed consent.