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IANAL while this does vary by jurisdiction, it's my understanding that even in two party states the consent is given to record the call and not consent as to wh
by elmerfud 6y ago
IANAL while this does vary by jurisdiction, it's my understanding that even in two party states the consent is given to record the call and not consent as to which party is doing the recording. So if they ask and you agree, you can also record without telling them because consent has been granted.
- SilasX 6y agoNitpick: I think the reasoning -- in jurisdictions where this applies -- is that the presence of a third party listener removes the expectation of privacy (for both parties) and makes recording by either party legal, not that it counts as consent per se.